This is classical field theory. In the Majorana mass term, we have the expression $$\nu_L^T\sigma_2\nu_L \tag{1}$$ where the left-handed spinor field $\nu$ has a Grassmann-valued amplitude, i.e., $\nu = \mathcal{N} \text{(blah)}$ where $\mathcal{N}$ is a Grassmann number. How does $(1)$ not vanish? For, we can write $(1)$ as $$\nu_L^T\sigma_2\nu_L = \mathcal{N}^2\text{(blah)}=0$$ by antisymmetry of $\mathcal{N}$ with itself.
Now, say that the above problem is resolved. Then, it seems like $$\nu_L^T\sigma_2\nu_L = (\nu_L^T\sigma_2\nu_L)^T = \nu_L^T\sigma_2^T\nu_L = -\nu_L^T\sigma_2\nu_L,$$ which would again suggest that this expression does equal $0$. How does this expression not vanish given these two observations?