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According to my textbook and various sources on internet I found that susceptibility of paramagnetic substance is related to temperature by the following formula: $$χ=Cμ_0/T$$

Susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance beyond Curie's temperature is related to temperature by the following formula: $$χ=C/(T-T_c)$$

Why there is no $μ_0$ in second formula?

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    $\begingroup$ Does C have to be same in both equations? $\endgroup$
    – Physiker
    Commented Mar 1 at 4:22
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    $\begingroup$ One is defined with B, the other with H. You just have to get used to different people using different conventions. $\endgroup$
    – naturallyInconsistent
    Commented Mar 1 at 4:28

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