The question about measuring the one-way speed of light has been debated in several posts in this forum, and are treated in detail on this wiki page.
In relation to this debate, I wonder how you would calculate the kinetic energy of an object with mass $m$, if the one way speed of light is different from c?
We can reason that if the one-way speed of light, $c’$, is smaller than c in some direction, then this speed limit would apply to particles as well, $v’<c’$. If it was not so we would be able to detect superluminal particles from supernovas (The light of the supernova always arrives before the particle radiation, and since the order of local events are preserved, this is true in any given frame of reference)
A reasonable assumption would be that a given kinetic energy of mass $m$ would correspond to a constant fraction of $c’$. The equation describing the kinetic energy would then look like this.
$E_K=E_0 \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v'^2}{c'^2}}} -1\right)$
with $E_0$ being the rest energy of the object. (Here I made the assumption that $E_0=mc^2$ depends on the two-way speed of light, to keep the rest mass constant. Alternatively you would have to define a one-way mass so that $m'c'^2=mc^2$)
Effectively this would mean that the energy it requires to accelerate the mass $m$ to a given velocity in a given direction, would depend on the one-way speed of light in that direction. It seems that the inertia of the object would have a directional dependency. My best guess is that this effect is canceled out from the perspective of the accelerating observer due to the transport of his clock, and that you would, therefore, not experience this difference in inertia in reality.
Can anyone clarify this?