Could someone please elaborate on the accepted answer to this mathoverflow post?
I'm working on a problem that looks like this \begin{equation}I=\int d^{n} x\, f(\vec x)\, e^{-\frac{1}{2} \vec x \cdot \Sigma^{-1}\cdot \vec x}\end{equation} I thought about expanding $f(\vec x)$ as a series and using Wick's theorem for each term, but I can't figure how to do the resulting sum. The post in question seems like it may answer this, but I don't really understand the notation in the first equation of his. In my example, $f(\vec x)=\prod_{i}f_{i}(x_{i})$ if that helps. Any clarification of the aforementioned answer would be awesome.