I am reading the following paper https://arxiv.org/abs/2309.15897 and have the following confusion: The authors look at the covariant phase space of linearised general relativity after one expands around some background spacetime with a bifurcate killing horizon. The authors first define the following function
$F_x = W(\gamma, \mathcal{L}_x\gamma)$, where $W$ is the canonical symplectic product on phase space of linearized metric perturbations, $\gamma$ are the first-order perturbations and $\mathcal{L}_x$ is the lie-derivative w.r.t. the killing vector field $x$ associated to the bifurcate killing horizon.
They claim in eq. C. 18 that
$\{F_x,\gamma(f)\} = \gamma(\mathcal{L}_x f)$.
holds, which looks to me as if $F_x$ generates the diffeomorphism associated to x.
What I find confusing is that it appears that one can write the charge simply as a symplectic product $F_x = W(\gamma, \mathcal{L}_x\gamma)$. However the charge was defined in eq. 8 of https://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/9911095 to have an variation that is given by the symplectic product.
It looks a little as if they think the symplectic product is already the integral of the variation which might be true but I don't know why. Maybe it is because one has restricts to a linear theory?