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The isospin doublet consisting of $u$ and $d$-quark is defined as $$ \begin{pmatrix} u\\ d \end{pmatrix}. \tag{1} $$ But the isospin doublet consisting of the antiquarks, $\bar{u}$ and $\bar{d}$, is given by $$ \begin{pmatrix} -\bar{d}\\ \bar{u} \end{pmatrix} \quad \text{but not}\quad \begin{pmatrix} \bar{u}\\ \bar{d} \end{pmatrix}. \tag{2} $$


The particle-to-antiparticle transformation involves a complex conjugation! Therefore, if $(u,d)^T$ transforms like the fundamental ($2$), the entity: $$ \begin{pmatrix} \bar{u}\\ \bar{d} \end{pmatrix}\equiv C\gamma^0 \begin{pmatrix} {u}^*\\ {d}^* \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} C\gamma^0u^*\\ C\gamma^0d^* \end{pmatrix} $$ transform as $2^*$ (the antifundamental i.e. the conjugate of $2$). Let me explain. To elaborate, if $D(g)$ is a representation, $$D(g_1)D(g_2)=D(g_1\circ g_2)$$, then complex conjugation gives, $$D^*(g_1)D^*(g_2)=D^*(g_1\circ g_2)$$ i.e. $D^*$ is also a representation, called the conjugate representation. So if $$ \begin{pmatrix} u\\ d \end{pmatrix}\to \underbrace{e^{i(\sigma_a/2)\theta_a}}_{D-\text{representation}}\begin{pmatrix} u\\ d \end{pmatrix}, $$ then $$ \begin{pmatrix} u^*\\ d^* \end{pmatrix}\to \underbrace{e^{i(-\sigma^*_a/2)\theta_a}}_{D^*-\text{representation}}\begin{pmatrix} u^*\\ d^* \end{pmatrix}, $$ which proves that if $(u,d)^T$ transforms in the fundamental $(2)$, then $(u^*,d^*)^T$ transforms in the antifundamental $(2^*)$.

The matter should have ended here. Why do we need further construction? I have shown that if $(u,d)$ transform like the fundamental ({2}) and $(u^*,d^*)$ transforming as the antifundamental ${ 2}^*$. Is there anything wrong till this point? If not, sadly I do not see why we need to define the anti-quark doublet as $(-\bar{d},\bar{u})^T$ instead of working with $(u^*,d^*)^T$ or, $(\bar{u},\bar{d})^T$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Linked. Further. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 14:46
  • $\begingroup$ Hold on: $\overline{Q} = C\gamma^0 \overline{Q}$ according to the post. So I conclude that $C\gamma^0 =1$. So something must be wrong, right? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 14:47
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry, it's a typo. Now corrected. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 14:52
  • $\begingroup$ Hint: write down the similarity basis transformation matrix converting the fundamental representation to the equivalent conjugate representation. It ought to have been part of your course. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 15:00
  • $\begingroup$ @CosmasZachos I claimed that if $(u,d)$ belong to the $2$-representation, then $(u^*,d^*)$ belong to the $2^*$ representation. Is this incorrect? I used the idea that if $D(g)$ is a representation, then $D^*(g)$ is also a representation, called the conjugate representation. My idea of conjugate representation is as follows: if $D(g_1)D(g_2)=D(g_1\circ g_2)$, then $D^*(g_1)D^*(g_2)=D^*(g_1\circ g_2)$ i.e. $D^*$ is also a representation. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 15:02

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I would like to post an answer based on my current understanding. It has been shown (see the question) that the $(u^*,d^*)^T$ transforms in the antifundamental representation of SU(2) i.e. $$\begin{pmatrix} u^*\\ d^* \end{pmatrix}\to \underbrace{e^{i(-\sigma^*_a/2)\theta_a}}_{D^*-\text{representation}}\begin{pmatrix} u^*\\ d^* \end{pmatrix} $$ By performing a similarity transformation with $S=-i\sigma_2$, we can make a change of basis, to write, $$-i\sigma_2\begin{pmatrix} u^*\\ d^* \end{pmatrix}\to \left\{(-i\sigma_2)e^{i(-\sigma^*_a/2)\theta_a}(-i\sigma_2)^{-1}\right\}(-i\sigma_2)\begin{pmatrix} u^*\\ d^* \end{pmatrix} $$ which simplifies to $$ \begin{pmatrix} -d^*\\ u^* \end{pmatrix}\to e^{i(\sigma_a/2)\theta_a}\begin{pmatrix} -d^*\\ u^* \end{pmatrix} $$ where we made use of the fact that $\sigma_2\sigma_a^*\sigma^{-1}_2=-\sigma_a$. Thus both $(u^*,d^*)^T$ and $(-d^*,u^*)^T$ belong to the same representation (the antifundamental), except written in a different basis. The reason we prefer the construction $(-d^*,u^*)^T$ over $(u^*,d^*)^T$ is that we can combine quark and anti-quark states using the same Clebsch-Gordon coefficients (Halzen and Martin, Section 2.7).

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  • $\begingroup$ Yes, that is the point of the near duplicates. The point is: in working with quark bilinears, the conjugate rep spinors are on the left, transposed, so they are acted upon from the right, by the transposed generators. Combining/cancelling generators with those acting on their right, you want to be using the same ones as the fundamental rep, to safeguard your sanity. This underlies the basis change. Henceforth, all intercalated generators/σs are in the same rep, and you may manipulate them easily. ... $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 16:55
  • $\begingroup$ No such change of basis is useful when we talk about the antifundamental representations of SU(3), for example, of the SU(3) flavor quark model. The antiquarks belonging to the $3^*$ of SU(3) is simply $(\bar{u},\bar{d},\bar{s})^T$. No shuffling, no negatives, etc. Am I right? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 17:20
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    $\begingroup$ Of course you are right, but the conjugate rep there is not equivalent to the fundamental, so there are far more invariants built for SU(2) than with SU(3). The "magic" of the Yukawa mass terms of the SM could not have worked with SU(3).... $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 18:05
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    $\begingroup$ ...so, in hindsight of what you were really asking, the answer is: "because it's most convenient to use a single, common, set of representation matrices for both reps. It's dressing the conjugate rep in fundamental rep clothes. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 18:12
  • $\begingroup$ ...and in illustration of your Clebsch point, the canonical mnemonic for this is that the $\pi^0$ wavefunction goes like $\bar u u-\bar dd$, a symmetric combination of the conjugate and the fundamental for the isotriplet, in apparent (only!) contrast to the spin isotriplet analog $\uparrow \downarrow+ \downarrow \uparrow$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 21:16

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