I'm currently studying shockwaves, particularly their effects on drag. I've stumbled upon an odd formula in "Elements of Gasdynamics" (Liepman and Roshko, pages 52-53), in there I saw an alternative formula for the theta-beta-mach diagram, and the author committed a passage in which I've been having problems replicating.
Starting from: $ \frac{\tan (\beta - \theta )}{\tan(\beta)} = \frac {(\gamma-1) M_1^2 \sin^2(\beta)+2}{(\gamma+1)M_1^2\sin^2(\beta)} $
He divides and multiplies right hand side by $\frac{1}{2} M_1^2 \sin^2(\beta)$
To obtain: $\frac{1}{M_1^2 \sin^2(\beta) } = \frac{\gamma+1}{2}\frac{tan(\beta-\theta)}{\tan{\beta}}-\frac{\gamma-1}{2}$
Finally he ends up with: $M_1^2 \sin^2(\beta) -1 = \frac{\gamma+1}{2} M_1^2 \frac{\sin(\beta)\sin(\theta)}{\cos(\beta-\theta)}$
The last passage is not very clear and I have no idea how he ended up with that, I've tried with Wolfram and both equations are solved for the same* points, yet I am unable to find a way to obtain the latter. My main question is if there is other literature where this formula appears or a way to solve it, I liked it because it allows the introduction to linearized supersonic pretty easily rather than using the potential. Needless to say I tried all the trigonometric tricks I could find. Any help is appreciated, thanks.
PS: I consulted, Fundaments of AD, Elements of Aerodynamics of Supersonic Flows, aerodynamics for engineering students and Dyamics and Thermodynamics of Compressible Flows.
EDIT: I found it in NACA Report 1135