To derive Ehrenfest's theorem using Schrödinger's equation, we start from $$\frac{d\langle A\rangle}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}\left(\int\psi^*\hat{A}\,\psi\,d^3r\right),$$ and then we get to $$\int\frac{d\psi^*}{dt}\hat{A}\,\psi\,d^3r+ \int\psi^*\frac{d\hat{A}}{dt}\,\psi\,d^3r+ \int\psi^*\hat{A}\,\frac{d\psi}{dt}\,d^3r,$$ where we can assume the middle term will be zero in most cases.
But my problem is with the next part. We can then replace the temporal derivatives by Schrödinger's equation and its complex conjugate, i.e. $$ i\hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} \psi= \hat{H} \psi = \left(-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 + V\right) \psi $$ $$ -i\hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} \psi^*= \hat{H} \psi^* = \left(-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 + V\right) \psi^*. $$ But all the derivations I've seen just change the order of the conjugate, as in $\hat{H} \psi^* = \psi^* \hat{H}$, and don't understand how that can possibly be the case, considering we stop having the Hamiltonian acting on $\psi^*$ when we do that.