Just an ancillary remark: the ease of solving
$$
\{f,H\}= N(p,q)~ \{f,\tilde H \}
$$
may well depend on the particular form of N(p,q), which
must, predictably, satisfy the integrability condition(s)
$$
\{N,H\}= 0=\{N,\tilde H\}. \tag{I}
$$
The reason is that, taking f to be q and p, respectively, you need the (sufficient) system of PDEs,
$$
\frac{1}{N} \partial_p H = \partial_p \tilde H ,\\
\frac{1}{N} \partial_q H = \partial_q \tilde H ,
$$
hence,
$$
\partial_p H = N \partial_p \tilde H ,\\
\partial_q H = N \partial_q \tilde H .
$$
The integrability of this system of equations follows
differentiation of the upper equations by $\partial_q$ and the lower ones by $\partial_p$, and equating the two, thus obtaining the consistency condition (I).
Choosing suitable integral limits for the boundary conditions, you might get
$$
\tilde H = g(q)+ \int \!\! dp {1\over N} \partial_p H = h(p)+ \int \!\! dq {1\over N} \partial_q H .
$$
For instance, for $N=H$, you get $\tilde H= \ln H$; if $N=\exp (-H)$, you get $\tilde H= \exp H$, and so on.
It sure looks like a homework problem.