I often read that if some operator commutes with (say) the position operator $x$, it commutes with any function $f(x)$ of it. For analytical functions, this is obvious, but I was wondering if there was any way to prove that for a bigger set of functions.
Edit: Since that question has come up a lot, here is how I would define $f(x)$: I'd just say that for any function $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ you can define the operator $f:L_2 \rightarrow L_2, \psi \mapsto f \cdot \psi$ where $\cdot$ means point-wise multiplication. I'm aware that for operators other than the position operator this definition does not work, so maybe I'm asking only for the position operator. I'm not really familiar with functional analysis, so excuse my ignorance.