In part (b) of this question, they have stated that the current that flows through the aeroplane is 0.00 A. When you use the value for emf from part (a) and the resistance, you can calculate that I = V/R = 0.490/1.78 = 0.275 A. I don't understand how they concluded that there must be no current in this situation; they must have also concluded it without doing any calculations for the question was only one mark.
Passing through the earth's magnetic field This link says that a current is indeed produced, which doesn't answer my question.
What is the effect of Earth’s magnetic field on airplanes? Here, they have stated that the resistance is great for a current. However, as shown above, the current in this question is still big enough for it to have an answer to 3 signficant figures, so I believe that this question is not assuming that the resistance is too large.
Emf induced on the wings of an airplane This article seems the most relevant. It says that the magnetic flux is not changing so there are no eddy currents created. So does that mean that the emf caused by the movement of a conductor through a magnetic field (ε=lvB) never produces current? It has to be emf caused by Faraday's law which causes a current?
Also, can you explain it through the fact that if the magnetic field is producing a force pushing the electrons to one side of the plane, the electrons can't travel the other way to go round the circuit and produce a current?