I've been reading through Griffith's Intro to Quantum book and can't understand some of the steps in his derivations. The first one is in his proof of time-independence for the normalization of wave function. Eq 1.25 seems to extract $\frac{\partial}{\partial t}$ from the terms within the parenthesis.
$$ \frac{d}{dt} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} |\Psi(x,t)|^2 dx = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\partial}{\partial t} |\Psi(x,t)|^2 dx \tag{1.21} $$
$$ \frac{\partial}{\partial t} |\Psi|^2 = \frac{i \hbar}{2m} \left( \Psi^* \frac{\partial^2 \Psi}{\partial x^2} - \frac{\partial^2 \Psi^*}{\partial x^2} \Psi \right) = \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \left[ \frac{i \hbar}{2m} \left( \Psi^* \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x} \Psi \right) \right] \tag{1.25} $$
I'm not sure if this makes sense, as "distributing" $\frac{\partial}{\partial t}$ over the terms would create 4 terms a la product rule right? This is used later when he derives the quantum momentum operator from $\left< x \right>$,
$$ \frac{\partial \left< x \right>}{\partial t} = \int x \frac{\partial }{\partial t} |\Psi|^2 dx = \frac{i \hbar}{2m}\int x \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \left( \Psi^* \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x} \Psi\right) dx \tag{1.29} $$
The next step he cites integration-by-parts and product rule, but it looks like he just cancels out the $dx$ and $x$,
$$ \frac{\partial \left< x \right>}{\partial t} = -\frac{i \hbar}{2m} \int \left( \Psi^* \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x} \Psi \right) dx \tag{1.30} $$
And then another integration-by-parts that I also don't see,
$$ \frac{\partial \left< x \right>}{\partial t} = -\frac{i \hbar}{m} \int \Psi^* \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} dx \tag{1.31} $$
Basically, how did we get 1.25, and what does the outline for the integration-by-parts for 1.30 look like?