# Why is a inviscid flow assumed to involve no thermal conduction and mass diffusion? [closed]

I can understand how the assumption of inviscid flow leads to Reynolds Number (Re) tending to infinity. But how does the assumption of inviscid flow lead to the assumption of no thermal conduction and mass diffusion? I would think Re tending to infinity would imply higher turbulence mixing, so higher heat transfer. Does the assumption of no thermal conduction mean no heat transfer OR that there is no heat transfer due to conduction (may be due to very high convective heat transfer)?

Not sure how to interpret the assumption of no thermal conductivity for a inviscid flow.

Source: Ref 1: Flight (Aerodynamics), John D. AndersonJr. in https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/earth-and-planetary-sciences/inviscid-flow

Ref 2: Modern Compressible Flow, John D Anderson

• You can't have turbulence without viscosity. Aug 9, 2023 at 22:50
• Please give a source, so readers can understand the context and assumptions. There are many fluid flow analyses, with various assumptions. Aug 10, 2023 at 1:07
• @D.Halsey It is my understanding as long as there is something to trip the flow turbulence can be generated in inviscid fluid. Turbulence won't be developed on its own due to the velocity gradient. But once preset, vorticity wont be dissipated Aug 10, 2023 at 15:57
• @Chemomechanics Sure I have added it. Aug 10, 2023 at 15:57
• Thank you. Short sketch to avoid writing all the terms: "Inviscid flow" is a term used to describe fluid flow obeying the Euler equations. The corresponding energy equation, for example, lacks the thermal conduction term $k\nabla^2 T$. One way of satisfying this absence is to assume that $k=0$. Similar arguments can be made for the other assumptions. Aug 10, 2023 at 22:58