I am having difficulties reproducing the result for the friction tensor presented in equation (19) of this article.
Here is my understanding: Consider the over-damped Langevin dynamics of a particle diffusing in a one-dimensional harmonic potential, with a Cartesian friction coefficient $\zeta^{\text{c}}$ and control parameters $x_0$ and $\omega$. The over-damped Hamiltonian is given by $V(x|\lambda) = \omega (x-x_0)^2 / 2$, where $\lambda$ represents the control parameters, with $\lambda = (\lambda^i)_{i=1,2}$, $\lambda^1(t) = x_0(t)$, and $\lambda^2(t)=\omega(t)$. The equation of motion is described by the Langevin equation: \begin{equation} \dot{x} = -\frac{1}{\zeta^{\text{c}}}\frac{\partial}{\partial x} V(x|\lambda) + \xi = -\frac{1}{\zeta^{\text{c}}}\omega (x - x_0) + \xi, \end{equation} where $\xi$ is a Gaussian white noise with $\langle \xi(t) \rangle = 0$ and $\langle \xi(t)\xi(t')\rangle \propto\delta(t-t')$.
To compute the mean excess work over a finite-duration protocol, the article employs linear-response theory and introduces the friction tensor $\zeta_{ij}(\lambda(t))$. This tensor is defined as: \begin{equation} \zeta_{ij}(\lambda(t)) = \beta \int_0^{\infty} dt' \langle \delta X_j(0) \delta X_i(t')\rangle_{\lambda(t)}, \end{equation} where $\delta X_i(t') = X_i(t')-\langle X_i\rangle_{\lambda(t')}$ represents the difference between the instantaneous conjugate force and its equilibrium mean. The correlation function $\langle \delta X_j(0) \delta X_i(t')\rangle_{\lambda(t)}$ describes the temporal correlation of forces $X_i$ and $X_j$, which are conjugate to control parameters $\lambda^i$ and $\lambda^j$, respectively. These averages are computed with respect to the canonical distribution of microstates $x$ at $\lambda(t)$, as detailed in equation (1) of the same article.
In the article, the friction tensor is a $2\times2$ matrix given by: $$ \zeta(\lambda) = \begin{pmatrix} \zeta^{\text{c}} & 0 \\ 0 & \frac{\zeta^{\text{c}}}{4\beta\omega^3} \end{pmatrix} $$
which I have been unable to reproduce. I tried computing the conjugate forces $X_1 = \omega (x - x_0)$ and $X_2=-\frac{1}{2}(x - x_0)^2$, and substituting them into the equation for the friction tensor. However, I am not able to solve the resulting time integral.
Could someone guide me through the correct computation of the friction tensor? Any help would be greatly appreciated.