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I am a math student who is reading Sakurai's Modern Quantum Mechanics Chapter 4 on the the time reversal operator.

First, Sakurai derived that for a given Hamiltonian $H$ of a system, the time reversal operator $\Theta$ is an anti-unitary operator such that $[H,\Theta] = 0$.

Suppose the existence of $\Theta$. It seems that the condition $[H,\Theta] = 0$ alone is not enough to uniquely determine $\Theta$ (up to a constant with unit length).

For example, let's consider that for a spinless system, $H = -p^2/2m + V$ for a real potential function $V$. If we further require $\Theta p \Theta^{-1} =-p$ and $\Theta x \Theta^{-1} =x$, then we uniquely (up to a constant) determine $\Theta = K$. Here, $K$ is "taking complex conjugate".

My question is that given a Hamiltonian $H$, how to determine its time reversal operator $\Theta$ (if exists)? Should we have to make more (probably natural) assumptions and try to find (probably unique) $\Theta$? Like in the previous example, we further assume $\Theta p \Theta^{-1} =-p$ and $\Theta x \Theta^{-1} =x$.

On the other hand, how should we prove that a Hamiltonian does not have time symmetry? Does it mean we have to show that (under those additional natural assumptions) there does not exist any $\Theta$ such that $[H,\Theta]=0$?

Or, for a spinless system with a Hamiltonian $H$, we "choose" the time reversal operator $\Theta = K$ and then examine whether $[H,\Theta]=0$ holds or not, while for a $1/2$-spin system, we "choose" $\Theta = \sigma_yK$?

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    $\begingroup$ As a general comment, time reversal symmetry is not an actual physical symmetry, it is only a symmetry of the local theory. While we can engineer time reversal symmetric solutions even in the lab, they require very special initial and boundary conditions which do not exist in nature. So why does it exist in the theory? Because the theory is a local approximation. As a whole the universe is not symmetric under time reversal and neither would a "correct" Hamiltonian be that includes the expansion of spacetime. This is not an answer to your question, it merely puts the "why" into perspective. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 11, 2023 at 17:51

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In the book the time reversal operator $\Theta$ (that should be called motion reversal operator) is physically defined as the operator that when applied to a state reverses the kinematic variables of that state.

It is established that $\Theta$ must be anti-unitary to make sense. Further it is argued (on physical grounds) that we must have

  • $\Theta p \Theta^{-1} =- p$
  • $\Theta x \Theta^{-1}=x$
  • $\Theta S \Theta^{-1} = -S$ (where $S$ is the spin operator).

As a mathematician you would probably like to define $\Theta$ to be the (unique up to phase) anti-linear map that satisfies these properties.

Note that all of these properties are independent of the Hamiltonian. We dont really need a Hamiltonian to reverse the kinematic variables of a state. The Hamiltonian enters through the question whether it has motion reversal symmetry ($[\Theta , H]=0$) or not.

It is then shown that it follows from the properties in the above list that:

  • $\Theta = K$ (up to phase) when acting on the spatial part of a wave function.
  • $\Theta$ acting on the spin part of a wave function must satisfy $\Theta = \exp(-i \pi S_y/\hbar)K$ (up to a phase).

We can of course combine the spatial part and the spin part using the tensor product to obtain $\Theta = \Theta_{\mathrm{spatial}} \otimes \Theta_{\mathrm{spin}}$ acting on an arbitrary state. And so $\Theta$ is uniquely determined (up to phase) by the above properties (independent of the Hamiltonian).

So to summarize: The motion reversal operator $\Theta$ of a system is uniquely determined (up to phase) by the axiomatic description of being anti-unitary and having the properties in the first list. In particular $\Theta$ does not depend on the Hamiltonian.

We can then use $\Theta$ to check for motion reversal symmetry of the Hamiltonian ($[H, \Theta ] = 0$ or not). If we have motion reversal symmetry we can use the usual techniques to obtain extra information from the symmetry.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for the answer! My confusion has been cleared up. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 12, 2023 at 13:25

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