In this Wikipedia article: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_formulation_of_the_Standard_Model the coupling of fermions to the weak gauge field $B^\mu$ is proportional to $$\sum_\psi \bar \psi Y_W \gamma^\mu B_\mu \psi$$ where $Y_W$ is the weak hypercharge. I have also seen similar expressions for coupling to the $W^\mu$ bosons with a weak isocharge vector $\vec{I}$. My question is: Is this notation just symbolic and I'm supposed to put in the correct hypercharge for each particle in place of $Y_W$ by hand or is $Y_W$ the actual charge operator? If it is the charge operator I don't understands how it acts in this case.



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