The fundamental laws of physics (classical and quantum) are time-reversal invariant. This symmetry is often taken to imply that, at the microscopic level, there is no preferred direction of time, no fundamental distinction between past, present and future. The emergence of an "arrow of time" is solely attributable to the second law of thermodynamics.
But there is something I just don't understand. I get that the behaviour of particles can be equally well described either moving forward or backward in time, but clearly, once the initial conditions of the universe are set, the movement of particles either go in one direction or another, not both. Just because their motions are reversible doesn't mean that they oscillate forwards and backwards in time. So even if there is no obvious qualitative difference between past and future on the microscopic level*, as opposed to macroscopic phenomena (a broken cup never reassembles), this doesn't mean that time is not always ticking forward.
Honestly, is it that surprising that the laws of physics work backwards? I don't expect that when I rewind a recording from back to front, somehow I might end up with a different beginning.
*Just because there isn't an "obvious" difference with microscopic phenomena doesn't mean there isn't any distinction at all. If shown a video of a particle travelling from A to B, you wouldn't be able to tell if it was played forwards or backwards. But still, you can tell they are 2 distinct videos: either A→B or B→A. It doesn't really matter WHICH direction they're going, just that they're going in ONE direction.
Help?