# Why acceleration bigger when upward force is present?

Imagine object is falling down and has a mass of 1kg. There's an upward force on it of 50N. Let's calculate what the acceleration is.

$$F_n = ma = 50 - mg = 50 - 9.8 = 40.2$$

where a becomes 40.2.

How is it possible that when object is in free fall (no upward force acting on it), acceleration is much less 9.8 than when there's upward force ? that doesn't make sense.

• The upward force in your example is much larger than gravity, so your object will accelerate upward with a large acceleration. Why does this not make sense? Commented Apr 29, 2023 at 5:51
• Because you are accelerating it with upward force. And the force due to gravity depends upon the mass and you are taking small consider same situation and a 50kg mass
– user324939
Commented Apr 29, 2023 at 5:51

• An object of mass $$1\ kg$$ has a gravitational force of about $$F_g=mg=-9.8\ N$$ with (free-fall) acceleration of $$-9.8\ ms^{-2}$$.
• If we include the applied force on the same mass of $$+50\ N$$, the net force is $$F_u=+50-mg=+40.2\ N$$ and the object is not accelerating to the ground, but upwards since $$F_u\gt F_g$$ (with an acceleration of $$+40.2\ ms^{-2}$$).