The transition rate corresponding to the first-order probability of absorption is given in the dipole approximation as $$W_{ba}=\frac{dP_{ba}^{(1)}}{dt}=\frac{\pi I(\omega_{ba})}{\hbar^2 c \varepsilon_0}\left|\hat{\epsilon}\cdot \bf{D}_{ba}\right|^2=\frac{\pi I(\omega_{ba})}{\hbar^2 c \varepsilon_0}\cos^2\theta\left|\bf{D}_{ba}\right|^2$$
where $\hat{\epsilon}$ is the direction of polarisation of the incident radiation. (I'm only mentioning those quantities which I think are relevant to this question.)
If the incident radiation is unpolarised and isotropic, the orientation of the polarisation vector $\hat{\epsilon}$ is at random, in which case $\cos^2\theta$ can be replaced by its average value.
Now my question is why $\langle\cos^2\theta\rangle=\frac{1}{3}$ here and not $\frac{1}{2}?$
Does polarisation has anything to do with it?