I was trying to derive Charles law. While deriving I got two results and one of these was unexpected. Those are, $$\Delta t \propto \Delta E_k$$
Where, $\Delta t$ is change in temperature and $\Delta E_k$ is average change in kinetic energy of ideal gas molecules. Now it is obvious because temperature is directly proportional to average kinetic energy of the ideal gas molecules.
But the unexpected result is below.
$$\Delta t \propto \frac {1}{E_0}$$
Where, $E_0$ is average primary kinetic energy of ideal gas molecules.
Derivation:
Suppose, we have $n$ moles of ideal gas particles in a volume $V_0$. If there is a equal distribution of particles per volume, then the gas has $n/V_0$ moles of particles per unit volume. If the average kinetic energy of each particle is $E_0$, then the total kinetic energy of particles per unit volume is $\frac {n}{V_0}E_0$
Let's assume with pressure and amount of substance remaining constant, the gas' volume changes into $KV_0$. So, it has $n/KV_0$ moles of particles per unit volume. Now, the average kinetic energy of each particle changes because they have got change in volume by colliding with changed kinetic energy going far from each other or coming near. Let's suppose the average kinetic energy of each particle is $E_1$ and the total kinetic energy per unit volume is $\frac {n}{KV_0}E_1$.
Notice that, the total kinetic energy must be equal to apply a constant pressure on container walls because pressure is constant for both cases. So,
$\frac {n}{V}E_0 = \frac {n}{KV}E_1$
Or, $E_0 = \frac {E_1}{K}$
Or, $E_0 = \frac {V_0E_1}{V}$ [suppose, $K = \frac {V}{V_0}$]
Or, $V - V_0 = \frac {V_0(E_1 - E_0)}{E_0}$
Or, $\Delta V = \frac {V_0\Delta E_k}{E_0}$ โ (i)
Now according to Charles law, $\Delta V = \frac {V_0\Delta t}{273}$
So, $\Delta V \propto V_0\Delta t$ โ (ii)
Comparing eq. (i) and (ii),
$\Delta t \propto \frac {\Delta E_k}{E_0}$
$\therefore \Delta t \propto \frac {1}{E_0}$, when average change in kinetic energy of particles is constant.
Question:
Is the relation $\Delta t \propto \frac {1}{E_0}$ really true? What do actually make whether true or false at microscopic level?
I think it's true because the more kinetic energy a molecule has, the attraction between its atom's nucleus and electrons becomes lower. So, we need less energy to take electrons to a higher energy state and hence more kinetic energy of molecules. The reverse happens when primary kinetic energy is lower.