In Wikipedia's table of interpretations of quantum mechanics there is a column for "local dynamics" where under the Copenhagen interpretation states "yes". Should that be the case? I will like to understand if the Copenhagen interpretation is local in the sense of local realism, which has been shown experimentally to be false under the Bell tests.
There is a clear consensus that Bohr considered the Copenhagen view as nonrealist, both in the sense that observables do not have a predetermined value before measurement and their result is probabilistic (not deterministic). Checking Speakable and Unspeakable in Quantum Mechanics, Bell argues that Bohr is very vague and unclear on how that saves quantum mechanics from violating locality. Bell constructs a theory of beables (avoiding the 'realism assumptiom' or 'outcome determinism'), prefers to define "local causality" instead of local realism, and proves under these concepts that quantum mechanics violates local causality and is nonlocal in general.
Independently of Bell's view, it seems that Bohr would have defended locality and thus Copenhagen interpretation could be considered local or at least agnostic. As Bohr view precedes the experiments to test Bell's inequalities, maybe Copenhagen view has just never been defined under those terms.
Is the Copenhagen interpretation usually considered local in the literature or is it assumed to be nonlocal because of nonrealist local interpretations are considered untenable?
Please avoid arguing why quantum mechanics must be nonlocal in general, I am specifically looking for what is the consensus (if any) about Copenhagen interpretation (even if untenable).