Following the sketch given in this answer, I hoped to solve the 1+1 dimensional Schrodinger equation under a potential $f(t)x$ by using a time dependent boost.
$$\left(\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + f(t)x \right) \Psi(x,t) = i\hbar \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial t}$$
When I attempt to apply a boost in the form
$$ \Psi(x,t) = e^{-i\frac{F(t)}{\hbar} x} \tilde{\Psi}(x,t) $$
where $F(t)$ is the antiderivative of $f(t)$, I get
$$ -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\left(\frac{\partial^2 \tilde{\Psi}}{\partial x^2} - 2i \frac{F(t)}{\hbar}\frac{\partial \tilde{\Psi}}{\partial x} -\frac{F(t)^2}{\hbar^2} \tilde \Psi^2\right) = i\hbar \frac{\partial \tilde \Psi}{\partial t} $$
but I am unsure of how to proceed. If I attempt to find a separable solution in the form $\tilde \Psi(x,t) = X(x) \Phi (t)$, I cannot resolve the cross term.
$$ -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\left(\frac{\ddot X}{X} - 2i \frac{F(t)}{\hbar}\frac{\dot X}{X} \right) = i\hbar \frac{\dot \Phi}{\Phi} - \frac{F(t)^2}{2m} $$
Did I choose the wrong ansatz for a boost? Or, is my derivation mistaken?