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Cohen Tannoudji pp 215

Third postulate :The only possible result of the measurement of a physical quantity $\mathscr A$ is one of the eigenvalues of the corresponding observable $\mathbf A$.

pp 225

...there of course exists an operator associated with the velocity of the particle...

pp 223

The observable $\mathbf A$ which describes a classically defined physical quantity $\mathscr A$ is obtained by replacing, in the suitably symmetrized expression for $\mathscr A, \mathbf r$ and $\mathbf p$ by the observables $\mathbf R$ and $\mathbf P$ respectively

From above we can say that there exists a velocity operator $\mathbf v=\frac{\mathbf p}{m}$ ,whose eigenvalues are the observed values of velocity.


  1. I've seen multiple times that we can't define velocity in quantum mechanics, but here I find that the eigenvalues of $\mathbf v$ can be the values of velocity

  2. I've also seen that the velocity operator in Schrodinger picture is :

the $j$th velocity operator is defined as : $\frac{1}{i\hbar}[\hat{q}^j, \hat{H}]$ But we also have another expression for the velocity operator as $\mathbf v=\frac{\mathbf p}{m}$, so how do we reconcile the two.

Please help me, Thank you.

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    $\begingroup$ WHERE have you seen that a velocity operator cannot be defined in quantum mechanics? In (nonrelativistic) quantum mechanics the velocity operator is, of course, $\vec{V}=\vec{P}/m$. $\endgroup$
    – Hyperon
    Commented Jan 11, 2023 at 6:11
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    $\begingroup$ Both definitions are, of course, mathematically equivalent. In the Heisenberg picture you have $\dot{A}(t) =\frac{i}{\hbar}[H,A(t)]$ for the equation of motion of an operator $A$. $\endgroup$
    – Hyperon
    Commented Jan 11, 2023 at 6:16
  • $\begingroup$ @hyperon, we cant define velocity not the velocity operator $\endgroup$
    – Kashmiri
    Commented Jan 11, 2023 at 8:42
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    $\begingroup$ You are misinformed. Both, velocities (i.e. the possible eigenvalues of the velocity operator) and the velocity operator are perfectly well defined in quantum mechanics. $\endgroup$
    – Hyperon
    Commented Jan 11, 2023 at 9:15
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    $\begingroup$ @Kashmiri surely you can definite momentum and the momentum operator, so just divide by the mass $m$ to get the velocity and the velocity operator. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 11, 2023 at 9:43

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as the comments note, in non-relativistic quantum mechanics the velocity of a particle can be easily defined, just like in classical mechanics, as the time-derivative of the position. The corresponding operator is $\hat{v} = \frac{d}{dt} \hat{x}$ and using for example Heisenberg's equation one can get

$$ \hat{v} = -\frac{i}{\hbar}[\hat{x}, H] $$

which for a Hamiltonian of the form $H = \frac{\hat{p}^2}{2m} + V(\hat{x})$ will give $\hat{v} = -i [\hat{x}, \hat{p}^2] / (2m\hbar) = \hat{p}/m$ as we expect.

The eigenvalues of the velocity operator are the same ones as those of the momentum operator after dividing by the mass. And indeed it is tricky as the momentum operator doesn't have normalizable eigenmodes (in an infinite box), but one can define an appropriate limit and construct a wave packet with as small uncertainty in velocity as you like, such that for all intent and purposes a particle has a well-defined velocity.

You might be confused because it is often said that in quantum mechanics you can't know the velocity and the position of a particle, but this just means that as we reduce the uncertainty in the velocity, approaching a particle with a well-defined one, we are increasing the uncertainty in the position of the particle, and its wave-function in position space spreads wider and wider.

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  • $\begingroup$ The eigenvalues of the velocity operator are the same ones as those of the momentum operator after dividing by the mass. Not always : In $\S 69.$ The motion of a free electron of Dirac's "The Principles Of Quantum Mechanics", 4th Edition, we read : Further, the $x_1-$component of the velocity is \begin{equation} \dot x_1=\left[x_1,H\right]=c\alpha_1 \tag{24}\label{24} \end{equation} $\endgroup$
    – Voulkos
    Commented Jan 11, 2023 at 12:23
  • $\begingroup$ This result is rather surprising, as it means an altogether different relation between velocity and momentum from what one has in classical mechanics.The $\dot x_1$ given by \eqref{24} has as eigenvalues $\pm c$, corresponding to the eigenvalues $\pm 1$ of $\alpha_1$. $\endgroup$
    – Voulkos
    Commented Jan 11, 2023 at 12:24
  • $\begingroup$ And in a paragraph later : It may easily be verified that a measurement of a component of the velocity must lead to the result $\pm c$ in a relativistic theory, simply from an elementary application of the principle of uncertainty of $\S 24$. To measure the velocity we must measure the position at two slightly different times and then divide the change of position by the time interval. (It will not do to measure the momentum and apply a formula, as the ordinary connection between velocity and momentum is not valid). $\endgroup$
    – Voulkos
    Commented Jan 11, 2023 at 12:28
  • $\begingroup$ @yyy the statement "you can't know the velocity and the position of a particle" is indeed misleading: you cannot measure simultaneously $x$ and $p$ but this does not preclude knowledge of $x$ or $p$ independently one from the other. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 11, 2023 at 15:52

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