I am reading a paper that makes the claim that $$ \Lambda^\mu {}_\nu = g^\mu{}_\nu - 2 \frac{(V + W)^\mu (V + W)_\nu}{(V + W)^2} + 2 \frac{W^\mu V_\nu}{V^2} $$ is a proper Lorentz transformation, where $V$ and $W$ are four-vectors such that $V^2 = W^2$.
This transformation is of interest because $$ \Lambda^\mu {}_\nu \, V^\nu = V^\mu - 2 (V + W)^\mu \frac{(V^2 + V \cdot W)}{V^2 + 2V \cdot W + W^2} + 2 W^\mu = V^\mu - (V^\mu + W^\mu) + 2 W^\mu = W^\mu. $$ Thus $\Lambda (V) = W$.
If instead, placing no restrictions on $X$ and $Y$ except that $Y^2 \neq 0$, we define: $$ \Lambda'^\mu {}_\nu = g^\mu{}_\nu - \frac{(X + Y)^\mu (X + Y)_\nu}{X \cdot Y + Y^2} + 2 \frac{X^\mu Y_\nu}{Y^2}, $$ it is easy to see similarly that $$ \Lambda'^\mu {}_\nu \, Y^\nu = Y^\mu - (X + Y)^\mu + 2 X^\mu = X^\mu $$ and so $\Lambda' (Y) = X$.
Clearly this defines a Lorentz-transformation-like $4\times 4$ matrix that transforms one four-vector $Y$ into another of our choosing $X$.
I can see that for $\Lambda'$ to be a Lorentz transformation, it is a necessary condition that $X^2 = Y^2$. Is this also a sufficient condition, and is there an easy way to see why?
Where $X^0 = Y^0$ and $X^2 = Y^2$, I assume this has to reduce to a spatial rotation in order to be a Lorentz transformation - but I can't see how. Does it?
Since the Lorentz group has six degrees of freedom, and we have presumably exhausted three of them in fixing $\Lambda(Y) = X$, there should be three left. What do these correspond to?
Is there any other (perhaps more general) standard way to construct a Lorentz transformation that gives $\Lambda(Y) = X$? I assume you can do it by composing boosts into/out of rest frames but perhaps there's a more direct approach.