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Usually, if we have a state $|\psi\rangle$, and have to measure an observable $A$, then all we do is expand $|\psi\rangle$ in terms of the eigenvectors of observable A, and then the probability of measuring an eigenvalue is basically $|\langle u_i|\psi\rangle|^2$ where $|u_i\rangle$ is the eigenstate of $A$. Basically, it is possible to write down the eigenvalue equation $A|\psi\rangle = a|\psi\rangle$.

What if we are given a state $|\psi\rangle$ explicitly in a problem (say, we had $|\psi\rangle = (6, 3i, 4+5i)^T$) such that it can never be written as an eigenvalue equation for an observable $A$? How would we measure the observable for that given state, then? Most of the time, if a state is given explicitly, it's usually that it will be a superposition of eigenvectors of the given observable to measure. What if it isn't?

In short, we can only use $|\langle u_i|\psi\rangle|^2$ if $|\psi\rangle$ can be written as a superposition of eigenkets of $A$. What if $|\psi\rangle$ is such that we cannot write it as a superposition of the eigenkets of the observable we wanna measure?

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    $\begingroup$ Do you have a single example for such a case? (See e.g. physics.stackexchange.com/q/54154/50583 or any of the many other questions discussing the spectral theorem for why this can't happen) $\endgroup$
    – ACuriousMind
    Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 15:15
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    $\begingroup$ Well, ignoring some mathematical subtleties, it is always possible to write $|\psi\rangle$ in terms of the eigenvectors of a self-adjoint operator/ of an observable. Why do you think otherwise? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 15:16
  • $\begingroup$ @ACuriousMind I don't have any particular example. This was just a doubt I had thought about while speculating on various questions that may come for the exam. Here, I was worried about a possibility of a question appearing wherein it asks us to measure an observable for a state and that state is 'explicitly' given to us such that it cannot be written as a superposition of eigenstates of the observable. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 15:21
  • $\begingroup$ @TobiasFünke Say we have already been given a state (as mentioned in the question) explicitly (say [3, 4i, 5+6i]) then the question is to measure an observable A in the state [3, 4i, 5+6i], and it turns out that while solving you find that you cannot find a way to express the state as a superposition of eigenkets of that observable. So, my question was is such a case physically possible or are projective measurements aren't enough to solve such problems? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 15:26
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    $\begingroup$ ignoring mathematical subtleties, observables always have a complete set of eigenstates, so it is always possible to expand any state in terms of eigenstates. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 15:27

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As $A$ is an observable, it can always be diagonalized by the spectral theorem. Furthermore, the eigenvectors of $A$ will always form an orthonormal basis from the space you’re studying ($\ell^2$ in this case). As the set of eigenvectors of $A$ forms an orthonormal basis, any vector from the space can be written as a linear combination of this set of vectors.

As long as you define $|\psi \rangle$ and $A$ correctly, you can always do it.

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  • $\begingroup$ I understood that, but my question was if |ψ⟩ was already numerically given, then if a question was asked to measure an observable in that state, then is the question wrong if that state cannot be broken down as superposition of eigenkets of the observable? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 15:32
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    $\begingroup$ I think such a question cannot exist. $A$ must be an hermitian operator. $\endgroup$
    – ErikLAndre
    Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 15:34
  • $\begingroup$ I read somewhere about non-hermitian observables (in the field of quantum information theory). Could it be possible that this is the case here? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 15:47
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    $\begingroup$ @ErikLAndre Your second sentence should be more precise: In the case of a degenerate eigenvalue, the corresponding (normalized) eigenvectors will not automatically form an orthonormal basis. (Take the unit operator as a simple example.) An exact formulation would be that "one can always find an orthonormal basis of eigenvectors of a hermitean operator" (disregarding the additional subtleties in the case of a continuous spectrum). Apart from that, your answer is, of course, correct. $\endgroup$
    – Hyperon
    Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 15:55
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    $\begingroup$ @PrathamHullamballi unless you provide a specific example, the discussion is moot. There are PT-symmetric theories (see here ) to evade hermiticity but you can still always expand everything in terms of eigenstates. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 16:23

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