Non-Locality – (just ) one more question?
I have read comments that Bell’s theory proves quantum mechanics is non-local, and also comments that it does not. I have read a comment by a very eminent person who stated what it means is that a measurement of a particle at one location "influences the state of the other particle". So my question is this: Two particles in the singlet state (as always) go their separate ways. At time one each passes through a SG apparatus with orientation in direction $z$. At time two particle 1 passes through a second SG apparatus but with orientation direction $x$; nothing happens to particle two. At time three the spin of both particles is measured in direction $z$. What will be the outcome of the spin measurements?