I've been working on the one-loop corrections, and encountered the following diagrams:
[a] and [b] come from the Yukawa Lagrangian $\phi\bar\psi\psi$. We can assign the momentum $k$ to one of the internal propagators in the loop, so the other part has the momentum $p+k$.
I'm confused about how this is done for [c] and [d] for the $\phi^3$ theory. For [c], I think the process is the same as [a], but in a solution of my exercise, the integral was written as
$$ \int\frac{d^4k}{(2\pi)^4}\frac{i}{(k-p/2)^2-m^2+i\epsilon}\frac{i}{(k+p/2)^2-m^2+i\epsilon} $$
Therefore I wonder if we should split the momentum $p$ for the $\phi^3$ case, if so, why do we do that?
For graph [d], does my momenta assignment look correct? I think I'm contradicting myself because it seems like we also have $p-k$ on the external leg and $p+k$ in the loop. The solution didn't care about the external momentum $p$.