I think I am missing some fundamental piece of information or the way I am learning this model is wrong, because the general answer to this question is that:
Well, they have the same potential because the equivalent capacitor is the sum of the capacitors...
When I try to find out why equivalent capacitor is the sum of the capacitors, the general answer is that:
Well, the equivalent capacitor is the sum of the capacitors because the potential difference between their plates is the same...
So let's assume there are 2 capacitors that are not connected
- $C_1=2F$ & $C_2=1F$
- $Q_1=10C$ & $Q_2=10C$
- Therefore $V_1=5V$ & $V_2=10V$
Now lets say we connect them in parallel.
- The total charge $Q_t=20C$,
- The capacitance of the individual capacitor has not changed (or has it?) $C_1=2F$ & $C_2=1F$?
- According to the general explanation, since the + plates are attached together and - plates are attached together, the charges rearrange themselves such that $V_t = \frac {20}{3}V$.
- Even though each capacitor is inherently the same as it was before.
- I am assuming now if we were able to measure the charge on each capacitor we would see $Q_1=\frac{40}{3}C$ & $Q_2=\frac{20}{3}C$? Is that right?
So another way to ask the original question is why do the charges distribute in such a convenient way?