The usual process for deriving the boundary condition for the tangential electric field across a surface uses Faraday's Law to prove that (when there are no dipole layers etc.) $$\hat{\textbf{t}} \cdot(\textbf{E}_1 - \textbf{E}_2) = 0 \tag{A}$$ where $\hat{\textbf{t}}$ is any vector in the tangent plane at the given point on the surface, and where 1 and 2 denote the two sides of the given surface. I have denoted this statement by $A$. If this is true, then
$$\hat{\textbf{n}} \times (\textbf{E}_1 - \textbf{E}_2) = 0 \tag{B}$$
follows immediately, for otherwise $\textbf{E}_1 - \textbf{E}_2$ is not completely along $\hat{\textbf{n}}$ (which is to say there is a component of $\textbf{E}_1 - \textbf{E}_2$ which is tangent to the plane, contradicting $A$).
Indeed, it is always written that $$A \iff B$$ and yet I cannot prove the converse, $B \implies A$. I'm hoping someone can supply that converse in full generality, without taking a particularly convenient surface etc.