EDIT: How is Lorentz' interpretation of STR considered "unpublished"? There's a ton of published scientific literature on it, see for example here or here. There were no grounds to close this question.
So, I’ve been reading up on the (neo-)Lorentzian interpretation of Special Relativity and absolute simultaneity, which is said to be empirically equivalent to Minkowski's and Einstein's interpretations (albeit a bit more metaphysical in nature). Yet there's one aspect of it that I just can't seem to wrap my head around no matter how hard I think on it, so I'm really hoping someone could help me see where I'm going wrong.
Consider the photon clock experiment where one observer (Alice) in motion passes by another observer (Bob) at rest, each of them holding a photon clock.
Now, according to the (neo-)Lorentzian interpretation, Alice would be in absolute motion whereas Bob would be closer to absolute rest.
Bob would see Alice as being subject to time dilation, with Alice's clock subsequently ticking slower than Bob's.
Bob would conclude that his own perspective is privileged due to being closer to absolute rest, thus Alice and her clock are both running slower in an absolute sense.
Alice would not be surprised to see her own clock ticking normally, since she too would conclude that her whole body and perceptions have absolutely slowed along with her photon clock.
So far, so good. HOWEVER...
Alice would also percieve Bob and his clock running slower than her own. But if it's postulated that...
- There exist relations of absolute simultaneity,
- Bob and his clock are absolutely running faster than Alice an hers, and
- Alice's perception of ALL events have been slowed due to her being in absolute motion,
then how does it still turn out that...
- Alice percieves Bob and his clock running slower than her own?
For Bob, there's no problem here. His present includes Alice's clock in absolute motion and thus running slower than his own, as it should. But what is Alice supposed to make of her perceived present where Bob's clock is running slow DESPITE being closer to absolute rest?
I've been racking my brain about this for weeks at this point, getting nowhere and starting to feel like I'm losing my mind a little. If you could offer some insight for a poor layman like myself, it would be greatly appreciated!
*NOTE: I'm aware that the Lorentzian (3D) interpretation is not as popular as Minkowski's (4D), but even if you don't happen to subscribe to it, please just humour me for the sake of the question.