I wonder if there is a correspondence between a cross product of two vectors $\vec{x}, \vec{y} \in \mathbb{R}^3$ and their associated spinors $\lambda^\alpha, \tilde{\lambda}^\dot{\alpha}$ and $\omega^\alpha, \tilde{\omega}^\dot{\alpha}$.
Here is what I mean by that: Given two vectors $\vec{x} = (x_1, x_2, x_3)$ and $\vec{y} = (y_1, y_2, y_3)$ one can associate the two complex matrices
\begin{equation} \vec{x} \mapsto X^{\alpha \dot{\alpha}} = \begin{bmatrix} x_3 & x_1 - i x_2 \\ x_1 + i x_2 & -x_3 \end{bmatrix} \quad and \quad \vec{y} \mapsto Y^{\alpha \dot{\alpha}} = \begin{bmatrix} y_3 & y_1 - i y_2 \\ y_1 + i y_2 & -y_3 \end{bmatrix} , \end{equation} with \begin{equation} det\left|X^{\alpha \dot{\alpha}}\right| = det\left|Y^{\alpha \dot{\alpha}}\right| = 0. \end{equation} Since the determinant of the matrices is zero these matrices may be written as an outer product of two complex 2-vectors: \begin{equation} X^{\alpha \dot{\alpha}} = \lambda^\alpha \otimes \tilde{\lambda}^\dot{\alpha} \quad and \quad Y^{\alpha \dot{\alpha}} = \omega^\alpha \otimes \tilde{\omega}^\dot{\alpha} \end{equation}
The cross product of $\vec{x}, \vec{y}$ can now be associated with these matrices like: \begin{equation} \vec{x}\times\vec{y} = i\frac{1}{2}\left( XY-YX \right) \end{equation}
My question now is, how can $i\frac{1}{2}\left( XY-YX \right)$ be expressed by means of the spinors $\lambda^\alpha, \tilde{\lambda}^\dot{\alpha}$ and $\omega^\alpha, \tilde{\omega}^\dot{\alpha}$?