I understand that a charged particle (like electron or proton) in some potential $V(x,y,z)$ would be described by the following form of the Schrödinger equation:
\begin{equation} i \hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}=-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2 \psi + V(x,y,z) \psi. \end{equation}
I also know that a particle in an electromagnetic field is described by the following form of the Schrödinger equation:
\begin{equation} i \hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}= \frac{1}{2m} \left(\frac{\hbar}{i} \nabla -q \vec A \right)\cdot \left(\frac{\hbar}{i} \nabla -q \vec A \right)\psi+q\phi\psi + V(x,y,z) \psi. \end{equation} This describes a semi-classical model where the field is treated classically and the particle quantum-mechanically. $\vec A$ and $\phi$ are associated with the electromagnetic field:
\begin{equation} \vec E = -\frac{\partial A}{\partial t} - \nabla \phi \end{equation}
\begin{equation} \vec B = \nabla \times \vec A \end{equation}
So, as I understand, the electromagnetic field can come from both:
- External sources
- The particle itself, since it definitely has a charge and can also have current
For the second point, see for example
C. J. Ryu, A. Y. Liu, W. E. I. Sha and W. C. Chew, "Finite-Difference Time-Domain Simulation of the Maxwell–Schrödinger System," in IEEE Journal on Multiscale and Multiphysics Computational Techniques, vol. 1, pp. 40-47, 2016, doi: 10.1109/JMMCT.2016.2605378
where charge density associated with the particle is $\rho = q |\psi|^2$ and $\vec J$ is an expression obeying $\nabla \cdot \vec J = -\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t}$)
But for some reason, unless someone talks about external applied electromagnetic field, nobody mentions the form of the Schrödinger equation involving $\vec A$ and $\phi$. So my question is this:
- Is it true that the form of the Schrödinger equation without $\vec A$ or $\phi$ is only approximate and neglects the self-interaction through electromagnetic field?
- If it is approximate, do you have any insight on why (and when?) it is Okay to neglect the self-interaction? Intuitively, the charge density given by $\rho = q |\psi|^2$ is the "closest" charge density to the particle itself. So how come we can neglect it and not the field/potentials due to the other charged particles?