Electrostatics:
$$\oint \vec{E} \cdot \vec{dl} = 0$$
comes from Coulomb's law
$$\vec{E} = \int \frac{\rho(r')\hat r}{4\pi\epsilon_0 |\vec{r}-\vec{r}'|^2}d^3r'$$
$$\nabla × \vec{E} = 0$$
$$\vec{E} = -\nabla V$$
Computing the closed line integral directly, we obtain:
$$\oint \vec{E} \cdot \vec{dl} = 0$$
Electrodynamics:
Faraday's law states that the closed line integral is actually equal to the negative of the rate of change of magnetic flux:
$$\oint \vec{E} \cdot \vec{dl} = - \iint \frac{\partial \vec{B}}{\partial t} \cdot \vec{da}$$
Firstly, your equation is not correct in general; the time derivative should be on the inside of the integral, this is actually important since your equation in its present form says that motional EMF is caused by the electric field, which is not true. You can see this because if $\vec{da}$ is time-dependent, you'd get different answers depending on whether or not the time derivative is in the inside or outside
$$\nabla × \vec{E} = -\frac{\partial \vec{B}}{\partial t}$$
The curl is not zero in general, and therefore:
$$\vec{E} ≠ -\nabla V$$
This field is not conservative in general, violating the analysis we obtained from Coulomb's law.
Coulomb's law is a special case of Faraday's law when: $\frac{\partial \vec{B}}{\partial t} = 0$, In general Coulomb's law does not hold, and in general the closed line integral of E is not zero.