I see many sources in atmospheric dynamics express the following:
$\frac{1}{\rho}(\nabla p) = \nabla_p \phi$
For example this source equation 10.
The reasoning given is that $\frac{1}{\rho}(\frac{\partial p}{\partial x})_z = (\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x})_p$ and $\frac{1}{\rho}(\frac{\partial p}{\partial y})_z = (\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial y})_p$. (see equation 9 in my linked pdf).
While I agree with the above, shouldn't $\nabla_p \phi$ lie in a different plane that the $\nabla p$? The first should lie in the plane $p=const$ and the second should lie in the plane $z=const$.
Informally the $i$ and $j$ unit vectors should be different for these two gradients since we are in different coordinate systems. While I agree that the magnitudes attached to these gradients is indeed the same, the would be a bit tilted from each other?
I'm probably just missing something, and would appreciate some clarity, thank you.