It depends a bit on what you mean by "converting". If your point is
Given a reference frame, can one describe the same Physics described using an electric field by using a magnetic field?
then the answer is not.
If your point corresponds to the interpretation given in jensen paull's answer, which is similar to
Given a reference frame, can an electric field induce a magnetic field or vice-versa?
the answer is yes, as mentioned in jensen's answer.
There is, however, other interpretations, one of which I find particularly suitable for your question:
Given that a phenomenon is described in terms of electric fields in one reference frame, could it be described in terms of electric and magnetic fields in other reference frames?
The answer is yes. The separation between what is an electric and what is a magnetic field depends on reference frame. If you consider the problem of the electromagnetic field of a charge, it is purely electric in the charge's rest frame, but a magnetic field appears in every other reference frame. Hence, you can "convert" an electric field into a magnetic field and vice-versa by changing reference frames. There is nothing paradoxical about that, for the forces experienced by charges are still the same. The only difference is that some observers will say the force is due to an electric field, while others will say it is due to a combination of electric and magnetic fields.
The restrictions on this sort of "convertion" is given by the Lorentz invariants of classical electromagnetism. More specifically, the quantities
$$B^2 - E^2$$
and
$$\mathbf{B} \cdot \mathbf{E}$$
are the same in all reference frames (I'm using Heaviside–Lorentz units with $c=1$). This restricts what you can make vanish on each reference frame. For example, if $\mathbf{B} \cdot \mathbf{E} \neq 0$, then there are no reference frames in which you have only an electric (or only a magnetic) field, for if there was you'd have $\mathbf{B} \cdot \mathbf{E} = 0$. Similarly, if you do have $\mathbf{B} \cdot \mathbf{E} = 0$, but $B^2 - E^2 > 0$, then there are no frames with only an electric field, for that would lead to $B^2 - E^2 < 0$, and so on.
In short, changes of reference frames can lead to a "mixing" or magnetic and electric fields. There are restrictions on how these conversions might happen due to the existence of combinations of magnetic and electric fields that have the same value in all inertial reference frames. For more details on how to compute these transformations, see, e.g., this Wikipedia article. Most E&M books also have a chapter in Special Relativity, in which these themes are often discussed.