# Why is the tension force in a rope with two different forces acting on it uniform? [duplicate]

Let me explain myself. Imagine a massless rope over a pulley, two weights m1 and m2 attached to the ends of the rope. M1's weightforce (m1xg) exerts a force on the rope, call it T1. On the other end of the rope m2 exerts the force T2. If we assume that the rope is massless, the sum of T2 and T1 has to be zero, so we conclude that T1 = -T2 = T. I dont understand how two different tension forces on both ends of the rope lead to a uniform tension force throughout the rope, even if the math suggests it. Please help :(

• You forget acceleration. Unless $m_1=m_2$, there is acceleration in the system. Jun 30 at 3:47
• Tension in string in Atwood's machine Jun 30 at 3:48
• @FireFunk please elaborate Jun 30 at 4:29
• Possible duplicates: physics.stackexchange.com/q/156413/2451 and links therein. Jun 30 at 5:14