In Shankar's QM book Chapter 10 pg. 274, it was said that quantum mechanically, the separability of the hamiltonian $$H=H_1(x_1, p_1)+H_2(x_2,p_2)$$ leads to the factorization of the wave function: $$\psi(x_1,x_2)=\psi_1(x_1)\psi_2(x_2).$$
How can this be shown to be true?
I know that for a separable Hamiltonian, the energy eigenvalue equation $$(\hat{H_1}+\hat{H_2})\psi_E(x_1,x_2)=E\psi_E(x_1,x_2)$$ gives energy solutions which are separable: $$\psi_E(x_1,x_2)=\psi_{E_1}(x_1)\psi_{E_2}(x_2).$$
The general wavefunction will hence be a superposition of the separable energy eigenfunctions $\psi_E$:
$$\psi(x_1,x_2)=\sum_{E_1+E_2=E}\psi_{E_1}(x_1)\psi_{E_2}(x_2)$$
How do I proceed to show that the above expression can be written as
$$\sum_{E_1+E_2=E}\psi_{E_1}(x_1)\psi_{E_2}(x_2)=\psi_1(x_1)\psi_2(x_2)?$$