It was noticed in the 1960s that chiral perturbation theory, describing the goldstone-bosons (pions) of the breaking $SU(N_f)_L \times SU(N_f)_R \to SU(N_f)_V$ of the chiral symmetry, has solitonic solutions (skyrmions), so long as you include four-derivative terms in your chiral lagrangian (the original proposal just used one of these terms). As I understand, there are various reasons to believe this skyrmion can be identified with nucleons such as the proton/neutron, delta baryons, etc:
- Their mass has the correct linear in $N_c$ scaling as expected from large $N$ calculations.
- The conserved topological current describing the winding number of the solitonic solution can be identified as the $U(1)$-baryon current - if you gauge your chiral perturbation theory with weak interactions, you can see that you recover the $U(1)_\text{Baryon} SU(2)^2$ anomaly
- With a bit of work, you see exactly the right excitations, in terms of isospin and spin representations
When I look in the literature, I mainly see papers from the 1980s hyping all of this up, and it seems very solid. What I am confused about is (to quote Witten) to what extent the skyrmions actually are baryons. To be concrete:
Are there any predictions from Skyrmionic theory of baryons that are not compatible with our current measurements/understanding of baryon phenomenology?
The original papers include calculations of various physical quantities which match up to ~30%, which seems fine to me given that the original Skyrme model only contains one of the four-derivative terms of the chiral-lagrangian, while it seems to me the "proper" thing to do would be to include all terms of the same order in chi-PT with coefficients extracted from experiment/lattice, and then perform skyrmionic calculations. It's believable to me that going to higher order will fix these numerical issues