I was trying to figure out the solution to exercise 1.4 on Quantum theory of many particles systems by Fetter & Walecka and I read through this question and its answer. But a point made in both the answer and the question confused me a lot.
We have this $$⟨m|H_1|Φ_0⟩ = ⟨m| a^{\dagger}_{\vec{k'}+\vec{q'},λ'_1} a^{\dagger}_{\vec{p'}-\vec{q'},λ'_2} a_{\vec{p'},λ'_2} a_{\vec{k'},λ'_1} |Φ_0⟩$$ expression and it is said that $|\vec{k'}+\vec{q'}|$ and $|\vec{p'}-\vec{q'}|$ should be above the Fermi level otherwise $⟨m|H_1|Φ_0⟩$ will be zero. My confusion is why we need $|\vec{k'}+\vec{q'}|$ AND $|\vec{p'}-\vec{q'}|$ to be above fermi level. I think, if we have either one of them above the Fermi level and the other below, we would still get an excited state with 1 electron excited above fermi level so I feel like it should be $|\vec{k'}+\vec{q'}|$ OR $|\vec{p'}-\vec{q'}|$ above the Fermi level.
I am sorry if this is not correct question formatting but this thing is really stuck in my mind and I really need a conclusion.