Consider two identical sources $S_1$ and $S_2$ of waves, separated by a distance $\ell$ (as shown in the figure).
The sources produce waves in opposite directions(and towards each other). Now, suppose we wish to derive the equation for the standing wave produced.
Let us take the origin at $S_1$. The equation of the wave due to $S_1$ is:- $$ y_1=A\sin(wt-kx_1)$$ where $x_1$ is the distance from $S_1$.
Now the equation of the wave due to $S_2$ is:- $$ y_2=A\sin(wt-kx_2)$$
where $x_2$ is the distance from $S_2$. Note that here we take $x_2>0$.
Now, applying the principle of superposition, we get:-
$$ y=y_1+y_2=A\sin(wt-kx_1)+A\sin(wt-kx_2)$$ Now, observe $x_2=\ell-x_1$, so we get:- $$ y=y_1+y_2=A\sin(wt-kx_1)+A\sin(wt-k(\ell-x_1))=A\sin(wt-kx_1)+A\sin(wt+kx_1-k\ell)$$
Using $\sin C+\sin D=2\sin\left(\frac{C+D}{2}\right)\cos\left(\frac{D-C}{2}\right)$, we get:-
$$y=2A \cos\left(kx-\frac {k\ell}{2}\right)\sin\left(wt-\frac{k\ell}{2}\right)$$
Note, that here we replace $x_1$ with $x$ since $x=x_1$ as the origin is at $S_1$.
However, the standard equation of stationary waves in such a case is given as $y=2A \cos(kx)\sin(wt)$. Using the equation we just derived, $\ell$ must =Nλ (where N is a non-negative integer) so that $k\ell=\frac{2π}{λ}.Nλ=2Nπ$ and now, $$y=2A \cos\left(kx-\frac {2Nπ}{2}\right)\sin\left(wt-\frac{2Nπ}{2}\right)=2A (-\cos(kx))(-\sin(wt))=2A\cos(kx)\sin(wt))$$ as required.
Therefore, our proof of the standard equation of stationary waves requires $\ell=Nλ$. However, looking at the proof in my textbook, there is no discussion of this and the author uses $y=y_1+y_2=A\sin(wt-kx)+A\sin(wt+kx)$. A superficial explanation is given that a wave traveling in the opposite direction is taken with a '+kx' with no deeper reasoning. Although, my proof helps explain the origin of the '+kx' term (in the wave traveling in opposite direction), it adds a rather restrictive condition i.e. $\ell=Nλ$. Thus, I am skeptical about it.
Please help me out with two things:-
- Is my proof correct? If not, then what is the reasoning behind the '+kx'?
- If my proof is correct, then why isn't the $\ell=Nλ$ condition more commonly seen?