When we say "age of the universe," I assume this means the time interval for the Euclidean FLRW metric $$ ds^{2} = -dt^{2} + a^{2}(t)\Big(dx^{2}+dy^{2}+dz^{2}\Big) $$ from when the scale factor was $a(0) = 0$ to today $a(t_{0})=1$.
First, before we go any further, is this true?
Now different histories of the rate of expansion presumably lead to different time intervals from $a=0$ to $a=1$ (and yes it is true the expansion rate changed a few times during the interval based on what dominated the universe).
Now inflation postulates that, in addition to the standard big bang model, there was an extremely rapid expansion early in the universe. Wouldn't this have an effect on our calculated age of the universe? If so, why is there always only one answer given to the age of the universe if different models lead to different ages? If not, then what exactly do we mean by "age of the universe" and why doesn't the question of whether or not unimaginably rapid expansion occurred not affect the age?
A comment helped me clarify some things about my (lack of) understanding. User Triatticus said,
Seeing as the time period of inflation itself was extremely short I don't see it adding substantially to the age of the universe [...]
This is true, and the point here is that without inflation it would take more time for the universe to expand to whatever size it needs to be. This is why I think the age should have to be affected.
Let me make this more specific. Wikipedia says,
The inflationary epoch lasted from $10^{−36}$ seconds after the conjectured Big Bang singularity to some time between $10^{−33}$ and $10^{−32}$ seconds after the singularity.
Within those $\Delta t = 10^{-33} - 10^{-36} \approx 10^{−33}$ seconds, the universe expanded by a factor of $x = a(t_\text{after})/a(t_\text{before})$. In other words, in an inflation model, this expansion by $x$ took $10^{−33}$ seconds. In a non-inflation model, wouldn't this expansion by $x$ take more time than that? If so, what would be the order of this time interval?