I am studying a paper on the effects in bound-state QED coming from nuclear dynamics, and I am struggling to understand one basic derivation. The authors introduce a modified photon propagator $$ \tag{1} i\mathcal{D}_{\mu\nu}(x,x') = \langle 0|T[\hat{A}^{\mathrm{rad}}_{\mu}(x) \hat{A}^{\mathrm{rad}}_{\nu}(x')]|0 \rangle, $$ where the total radiation field $\hat{A}^{\mathrm{rad}}_{\mu}(x)$ is expressed as the sum $$ \hat{A}^{\mathrm{rad}}_{\mu}(x) = \hat{A}^{\mathrm{free}}_{\mu}(x) + \hat{A}^{\mathrm{fluc}}_{\mu}(x).$$ Here, $\hat{A}^{\mathrm{free}}_{\mu}(x)$ is the usual free photon field, and the fluctuating part $\hat{A}^{\mathrm{fluc}}_{\mu}(x)$ is generated by the nuclear transition current $\hat{j}^{\mathrm{fluc}}_{\mu}(x)$. The authors say that "one easily verifies" that Eq. (1) can be rewritten as $$ \tag{2} \mathcal{D}_{\mu\nu}(x,x') = D_{\mu\nu}(x-x') + \int d^4 x_1 \, d^4 x_2 \, D_{\mu \alpha}(x-x_1) \Pi^{\alpha \beta}(x_1,x_2) D_{\beta \nu}(x_2-x'), $$ with the free photon propagator $$iD_{\mu\nu}(x-x') = \langle 0|T[\hat{A}^{\mathrm{free}}_{\mu}(x) \hat{A}^{\mathrm{free}}_{\nu}(x')]|0 \rangle$$ and the so-called nuclear-polarization tensor $$i\Pi^{\alpha \beta}(x,x')=\langle 0|T[\hat{j}^{\alpha}_{\mathrm{fluc}}(x) \hat{j}^{\beta}_{\mathrm{fluc}}(x')]|0 \rangle.$$
This is probably something very simple but I cannot seem to understand how one would go from $\hat{A}^{\mathrm{fluc}}_{\mu}(x)$ in Eq. (1) to $\hat{j}^{\mathrm{fluc}}_{\mu}(x)$ in Eq. (2). Any hints/ideas would be greatly appreciated!