Suppose we have the path integral:
\begin{equation} Z=\int \mathcal{D}x\mathcal{D}y\,\exp\left[-\frac{a}{2}\int_0^1 dt\,\left(\,\dot{x}(t)^2-\,\dot{y}(t)^2\right)\right]. \end{equation}
The integration over $x$ is trivial: it is the well known result for a free particle:
\begin{equation} \int \mathcal{D}x\,\exp\left[-\frac{a}{2}\int_0^1 dt\,\dot{x}(t)^2\right]=\sqrt{\frac{a}{2\pi}}\exp\left[-\frac{a}{2}(x_f-x_i)^2\right] \end{equation}
where $x(1)=x_f$, $x(0)=x_i$.
What about the other integration? It has the "wrong" sign. One could think to apply the same formula with $a\to-a$, hence getting an imaginary unit from the negative square root. Would be this correct? How would you compute this path integral?
The integral comes from https://doi.org/10.1103/PhysRevD.43.2572, equation (4.9). One should be able to pick up a convergent contour in the complex plane where the integral should converge. It is however not clear which contour to choose and why.