I am taking a first year physics course, my calculus is really rusty and I am having a very hard time with (Potential) Gravitational Energy.
Let's consider a body of mass $m_1$ located at $r_1$ from another body with mass $m_2$. We move the body with mass $m_1$ to location $r_2$ such that $r_2 > r_1$. As far as I can tell, the work we do on $m_1$ is described by:
$$W_{r_1r_2} = \int_{r_1}^{r_2} F(r).dr=\int_{r_1}^{r_2}\frac {Gm_1m_2}{r^2}dr=-\frac {Gm_1m_2}{r} \biggr|_{r_1}^{r_2}$$
Which is:
$$\begin{equation}\tag{1}W_{r_1r_2} = Gm_1m_2 \left(\frac{-1}{r_2}-\frac{-1}{r_1}\right)=Gm_1m_2 \left(\frac{1}{r_1}-\frac{1}{r_2}\right)\end{equation}$$
Since $r_2>r_1$ then:
$$\begin{equation}\tag{2}W_{r_1r_2} > 0\end{equation}.$$
- The result (2) makes sense to me because we are doing work to move the body with mass $m_1$ away from the body with mass $m_2$. Is this correct?
- Is it correct to reason that the work done by the gravitational field would be $W_{g_{r_1r_2}}=-W_{r_1r_2}$ Since it is opposing the work we are doing?
- Thus the potential gravitational energy $\Delta U_g=-W_g=W_{r_1r_2}$. Is that why the gravitational potential energy is always defined as $-\frac {Gm_1m_2}{r} \biggr|_{r_1}^{r_2}$?
- If we move $m_1$ to $r_2$ such that $r_2$ is very far away (approaching infinity), then $(\frac{1}{r_2} \rightarrow 0)$ which would mean $W_{r_1\infty}=Gm_1m_2 \frac{1}{r_1}$. Is this right? I find this so counter-intuitive - although I can see from equation (1) that for any $r_2 > r_1 \rightarrow W_{r_1r_2} \leq W_{r_1\infty}$.
Before someone points it out I do not think this question is an exact duplicate of Concept of Gravitational potential energy or Is the Gravitational potential energy work done by Gravitational force or not?