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In Cohen-Tannoudji's Quantum mechanics book, I was reading about an example of a wave packet. The wave function is a superposition of 3 waves with different wave number:

$k_0$, $k_0 + \frac{\Delta k}{2}$, $k_0 - \frac{\Delta k}{2}$

And Amplitudes:

1, $\frac 12$,$\frac 12$.

The wave function is:

$$\psi(x)= Const. [e^{ik_0x} + \frac 12 e^{i(k_0 + \frac{\Delta k}{2})x} +\frac 12e^{i(k_0 - \frac{\Delta k}{2})x}]$$

$$\psi(x)= Const.e^{ik_0x} [1+cos(\frac {\Delta k}{2}x)]$$

One way to find out the distance for a destructive interference is to equalize with zero the expression in the bracket with the cos() expression. With this method you simply write

$cos(\frac {\Delta k}{2}x)=-1=cos\pi$ and from here we get $x=\frac{2\pi} {\Delta k}$.

But in the book the following is said:

As one moves away from x=0,the waves become more and more out of phase, and $|\psi(x)|$decreases.The interference becomes completely destructive when the phase shift between $e^{ik_0x}$ and $e^{i(k_0 \pm \frac{\Delta k}{2})x}$ is equal to $\pm \pi$:$\psi(x)$ goes to zero when $x=\pm \frac{2\pi} {\Delta k}$.

How does this translates mathematically? How can one study the phase shift when the waves are given in a complex expression? As it can be clearly seen, here you get $x=\pm\frac{2\pi} {\Delta k}$ instead of $x=\frac{2\pi} {\Delta k}$. One can argue that, initially, I could also write:

$cos(\frac {\Delta k}{2}x)=-1=cos(-\pi)$ and I would get the $x=-\frac{2\pi} {\Delta k}$ but this seems forced, knowing that $cos(-x)=cosx$.

So, to sum it up, I am interested into how can I investigate the phase shift of 2 waves (3 in this case) when the waves are given in a complex expression. I want to be able to cleanly write the correct result

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1 Answer 1

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In three waves, you may class them into two group of equal amplitude.

Group one: $$ \frac{1}{2} e^{ik_0x}\,\, \text{ and } \,\,\frac{1}{2} e^{i\left(k_0+\frac{\Delta k}{2}\right) x}; $$

Group two: $$ \frac{1}{2} e^{ik_0x}\,\, \text{ and } \,\,\frac{1}{2} ei^{i\left(k_0-\frac{\Delta k}{2}\right) x}; $$

The phase (the exponent after $i$) difference in group one is $$\phi(x) = k_0x - \left(k_0+\frac{\Delta k}{2}\right) x = - \frac{\Delta k}{2} x$$ The destructive interference between the two equal-amplitude waves in the group one occurs at $$ \phi(x) =- \frac{\Delta k}{2} x = \pm \pi.$$

A similar argument may apply to the group two.

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