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In my school physics textbook (high school) Newton's 1st law is formulated like this: "If the forces applied to a body are equivalent (the net force is 0), the body stays at rest or moves at a constant speed in a straight line" (my translation). I am confused about whether or not you can say that the net force is 0 given that a body is at rest or moving at a constant speed in a straight line. It seems reasonable and it looks like that this is used in the example problems like that, but I'm not certain if the implication works both ways. Can someone clarify this?

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Your conclusion is right, no acceleration says not net force.

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  • $\begingroup$ I think I get it now, the 2nd law actually mentions that case. Thanks. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 15, 2022 at 12:17

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