In natural units, the Dirac Equation is $$i \frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}t} \psi = \left[\vec \alpha \cdot \vec P +\beta m + e \Phi\right]\psi.$$ I use Pauli-Dirac basis for matrices, \begin{align*} \vec \alpha = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & \vec \sigma\\ \vec \sigma & 0 \end{pmatrix} && \text{and} && \vec \beta = \begin{pmatrix} I & 0\\ 0 & -I \end{pmatrix}. \end{align*}
When the fields and momentum are $0$, the states and energies are
(1) $\tilde \phi=a (e^{-imt},0,0,0)$ and $b (0,e^{-imt},0,0)$ corresponding to a positive energy $m$
(2) $\tilde\chi=c (0,0,e^{imt},0)$ and $d (0,0,0,e^{imt})$ corresponding to a negative energy $-m$
My goal is to derive the non-relativistic limit (Pauli-Schroedinger Equation) using the above. I consider all the fields/momentum to be nonzero now but small now. I am stuck on one single point:
It is standard to use the ansatz $\psi = (\tilde\phi_1,\tilde\phi_2,\tilde\chi_3,\tilde\chi_4)=(\tilde\psi,\tilde\chi)\equiv e^{-imt}(\phi,\chi)$. In the last statement, we are effectively factoring out the positive energy phase in our solution. From this, why is $\frac \partial {\partial t} \chi\sim 0$, in the limit that $P \ll m$ and $\Phi\ll m$?
My confusion is that clearly from (1) and (2), $\tilde\phi\sim e^{-imt}$ while $\tilde\chi\sim e^{imt}$. So doesn't this mean $\phi\sim 1$ while $\chi\sim e^{2imt}$? In this case, it seems that we do not get $\frac \partial {\partial t} \chi\sim 0$, but instead we get $\frac \partial {\partial t} \phi\sim 0$, which is the opposite of what I wanted, and is the opposite of what is in the literature (see "From Dirac Equation")