On Section 3.2 in Carroll's Spacetime and Geometry, he claims the following:
In flat space in inertial coordinates, the partial derivative operator $\partial_\mu$ is a map from $(k,l)$ tensor fields to $(k, l+1)$ tensor fields, which acts linearly on its arguments and obeys the Leibniz rule on tensor products.
I have been wondering why is that so for quite some time and could not get a clue (it is the first time I am studying differential geometry).
My first attempt was to take a simple and practical example and understand it working it out. So I took a $(0,0)$ tensor (a scalar $\phi$), and applied the partial derivative operator to it, yielding $\partial_\mu \phi = \dfrac{\partial\phi}{\partial x^\mu}$. By hypothesis, the result supposedly should be a $(0,1)$ tensor, but by definition a $(0,1)$ tensor should look like $\omega = \omega_\mu dx^\mu$.
I have a feeling that I am really close to understanding it, but I was not able to get closure so far. Could any of you help me finding what am I missing on this specific example, or perhaps to give reasoning to the more general statement regarding partial derivative operators on tensor fields?