In Shao's talk https://youtu.be/2vTvHYYl1Qk?t=1554, he argues that in quantum mechanics "if a symmetry acts projectively on states, then we have a t' Hooft anomaly". But I'm having trouble to understand his arguments that we can't have any gauge invariant state, and this should be viewed as an obstruction to gauging.
I think there is something to do with the phase that appears because of the projective representation. If the symmetry acts like $$ U_{g_2}U_{g_1}\psi=e^{i\alpha(g_1,g_2)}U_{g_1g_2}\psi $$ on states. Then, when we try to gauge this symmetry, we would be able to introduce a gauge field to cancel the terms like $\partial_{\mu}\Lambda(x)$, $\Lambda(x)$ being the gauge parameter of the transformation $U_g$, but we will fail to get rid of the term $\partial_{\mu}\alpha(g_1,g_2)$. Of course, my argument is more related to the arguments given in QFTs when we're dealing with 't Hooft anomalies. Where we try to gauge a symmetry and the partition function gain a non-trivial phase $$ Z[A^\prime]=e^{i\int \alpha(A, \Lambda)}Z[A]. $$ But Shao's arguments seems to be easier and cleaner than that.
Can anyone clarify this for me?