I am trying to understand the derivation of the solution of the wave equation (homogeneous case) while using the Fourier Transformation:
$$\left(\frac 1 {c^2} \frac {\partial^2}{\partial t^2}- \triangle\right)\phi=0$$
The expression for $\phi(\vec r,t)$ is:
$$\phi(\vec r,t)= \iint \tilde \phi(\vec k, \omega)e^{i(\vec k \vec r - \omega t)}d^3kd\omega$$
which I assume is the reverse Fourier transformation, when one knows the $\tilde \phi(\vec k, \omega)$.
Then by substituting the 2nd expression in the first one, we get :$\omega= \pm kc$
Then for $\tilde \phi(\vec k, \omega)$ we have:
$$\tilde \phi(\vec k, \omega)=2\omega f(\vec k, \omega)\delta(\omega^2-c^2k^2)$$
Now, while I am aware that $2\omega$ is a convention, I don't know where does the above expression comes from? I recently learned about the Fourier Transformation and Series, but I didn't come across this expression. Can anyone explain this to me?